an interesting probability problem
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an interesting probability problem
A standard six sided die is rolled forever. Let Tk be the total
of all the dots rolled in the first k rolls. Find the probability
that one of the Tk is eight.
of all the dots rolled in the first k rolls. Find the probability
that one of the Tk is eight.
MaxEntropy_Man- Posts : 14702
Join date : 2011-04-28
Re: an interesting probability problem
1,1,1,1,1,1,1,1
1,1,1,1,1,1,2
1,1,1,1,1,3
1,1,1,1,4
1,1,1,5
1,1,6
2, 6
3, 5
4, 4
If K=8, the total number of ways Tk=8 is 1. The total number of sample space for 8 rolls is 6 ** 8
The probability of getting Tk=8 for K=8 is 1/(6**
If K=7, the total number of ways Tk=8 is 7. The probability of getting Tk=8 for K=7 is 7/(6**7)
If K=6, the total number of ways Tk=8 is 6. The probability of getting Tk=6 for K=6 is 6/(6**6)
If K=5, the total number of ways Tk=8 is 5. The probability of getting Tk=8 for K=5 is 5/(6**5)
If K=4, the total number of ways Tk=8 is 4. The probability of getting Tk=8 for K=4 is 4/(6**4)
If K=3, the total number of ways Tk=8 is 3. The probability of getting Tk=8 for K=3 is 3/(6**3)
If K=2, the total number of ways Tk=8 is 6. The probability of getting Tk=8 for K=2 is 6/(6**6)
So you add up these individual probabilities to get the final answer.
Remember who used to say “Is that your final answer?”
Btw I am quite sure my answer is wrong. I hope at least my approach made some sense.
1,1,1,1,1,1,2
1,1,1,1,1,3
1,1,1,1,4
1,1,1,5
1,1,6
2, 6
3, 5
4, 4
If K=8, the total number of ways Tk=8 is 1. The total number of sample space for 8 rolls is 6 ** 8
The probability of getting Tk=8 for K=8 is 1/(6**
If K=7, the total number of ways Tk=8 is 7. The probability of getting Tk=8 for K=7 is 7/(6**7)
If K=6, the total number of ways Tk=8 is 6. The probability of getting Tk=6 for K=6 is 6/(6**6)
If K=5, the total number of ways Tk=8 is 5. The probability of getting Tk=8 for K=5 is 5/(6**5)
If K=4, the total number of ways Tk=8 is 4. The probability of getting Tk=8 for K=4 is 4/(6**4)
If K=3, the total number of ways Tk=8 is 3. The probability of getting Tk=8 for K=3 is 3/(6**3)
If K=2, the total number of ways Tk=8 is 6. The probability of getting Tk=8 for K=2 is 6/(6**6)
So you add up these individual probabilities to get the final answer.
Remember who used to say “Is that your final answer?”
Btw I am quite sure my answer is wrong. I hope at least my approach made some sense.
Last edited by Rishi on Tue Oct 01, 2013 7:54 pm; edited 1 time in total
Rishi- Posts : 5129
Join date : 2011-09-02
Re: an interesting probability problem
rishi your approach is fine. it's just that your counting is missing some of the possibilities.
MaxEntropy_Man- Posts : 14702
Join date : 2011-04-28
Re: an interesting probability problem
>>> I kinda fixed the counts. Are we supposed to come up with an expression involving K?
1,1,1,1,1,1,1,1 (1 way)
1,1,1,1,1,1,2 (7 ways)
1,1,1,1,1,3 (6 ways)
1,1,1,1,4 (5 ways)
1,1,1,5 (4 ways)
1,1,6 (3 ways)
1,2,5 (3 ways)
1,3,4 (3 ways)
2, 6 (2 ways)
3, 5 (2 ways)
4, 4 (1 way)
If K=8, the total number of ways Tk=8 is 1. The probability of getting Tk=8 for K=8 is 1/(6**.
If K=7, the total number of ways Tk=8 is 7. The probability of getting Tk=8 for K=7 is 7/(6**7).
If K=6, the total number of ways Tk=8 is 6. The probability of getting Tk=6 for K=6 is 6/(6**6).
If K=5, the total number of ways Tk=8 is 5. The probability of getting Tk=8 for K=5 is 5/(6**5).
If K=4, the total number of ways Tk=8 is 4. The probability of getting Tk=8 for K=4 is 4/(6**4).
If K=3, the total number of ways Tk=8 is 9. The probability of getting Tk=8 for K=3 is 9/(6**3).
If K=2, the total number of ways Tk=8 is 5. The probability of getting Tk=8 for K=2 is 5/(6**2).
So you add up these individual probabilities to get the final answer.
1,1,1,1,1,1,1,1 (1 way)
1,1,1,1,1,1,2 (7 ways)
1,1,1,1,1,3 (6 ways)
1,1,1,1,4 (5 ways)
1,1,1,5 (4 ways)
1,1,6 (3 ways)
1,2,5 (3 ways)
1,3,4 (3 ways)
2, 6 (2 ways)
3, 5 (2 ways)
4, 4 (1 way)
If K=8, the total number of ways Tk=8 is 1. The probability of getting Tk=8 for K=8 is 1/(6**.
If K=7, the total number of ways Tk=8 is 7. The probability of getting Tk=8 for K=7 is 7/(6**7).
If K=6, the total number of ways Tk=8 is 6. The probability of getting Tk=6 for K=6 is 6/(6**6).
If K=5, the total number of ways Tk=8 is 5. The probability of getting Tk=8 for K=5 is 5/(6**5).
If K=4, the total number of ways Tk=8 is 4. The probability of getting Tk=8 for K=4 is 4/(6**4).
If K=3, the total number of ways Tk=8 is 9. The probability of getting Tk=8 for K=3 is 9/(6**3).
If K=2, the total number of ways Tk=8 is 5. The probability of getting Tk=8 for K=2 is 5/(6**2).
So you add up these individual probabilities to get the final answer.
Rishi- Posts : 5129
Join date : 2011-09-02
Re: an interesting probability problem
this is from the purdue problem of the week series. i submitted a numerical answer to them yesterday. will post my answer here tomorrow and the official answer when they post it.Rishi wrote:>>> I kinda fixed the counts. Are we supposed to come up with an expression involving K?
1,1,1,1,1,1,1,1 (1 way)
1,1,1,1,1,1,2 (7 ways)
1,1,1,1,1,3 (6 ways)
1,1,1,1,4 (5 ways)
1,1,1,5 (4 ways)
1,1,6 (3 ways)
1,2,5 (3 ways)
1,3,4 (3 ways)
2, 6 (2 ways)
3, 5 (2 ways)
4, 4 (1 way)
If K=8, the total number of ways Tk=8 is 1. The probability of getting Tk=8 for K=8 is 1/(6**.
If K=7, the total number of ways Tk=8 is 7. The probability of getting Tk=8 for K=7 is 7/(6**7).
If K=6, the total number of ways Tk=8 is 6. The probability of getting Tk=6 for K=6 is 6/(6**6).
If K=5, the total number of ways Tk=8 is 5. The probability of getting Tk=8 for K=5 is 5/(6**5).
If K=4, the total number of ways Tk=8 is 4. The probability of getting Tk=8 for K=4 is 4/(6**4).
If K=3, the total number of ways Tk=8 is 9. The probability of getting Tk=8 for K=3 is 9/(6**3).
If K=2, the total number of ways Tk=8 is 5. The probability of getting Tk=8 for K=2 is 5/(6**2).
So you add up these individual probabilities to get the final answer.
MaxEntropy_Man- Posts : 14702
Join date : 2011-04-28
Re: an interesting probability problem
nice question. will throw it at my son later and see what he comes up with.
bw- Posts : 2922
Join date : 2012-11-15
Re: an interesting probability problem
my son's solution:
450295/1679616 or 0.26809401672
the solution is based on writing a recurrence relation for p(n) where p(n) is the probability that one of the running totals is exactly n assuming we toss the die an infinite number of times.
for the basis case, p(0) is 1 (because the running total right at the beginning is always 0), and p(i) is 0 if 'i' is negative (because the running total can never be negative).
the recurrence relation for p(n) is (1/6)(p(n-1)+p(n-2)+...+p(n-6))
we can solve the recurrence relation in linear time by first computing p(1), then p(2) and so on, saving the previous results to avoid re-computation (dynamic programming).
450295/1679616 or 0.26809401672
the solution is based on writing a recurrence relation for p(n) where p(n) is the probability that one of the running totals is exactly n assuming we toss the die an infinite number of times.
for the basis case, p(0) is 1 (because the running total right at the beginning is always 0), and p(i) is 0 if 'i' is negative (because the running total can never be negative).
the recurrence relation for p(n) is (1/6)(p(n-1)+p(n-2)+...+p(n-6))
we can solve the recurrence relation in linear time by first computing p(1), then p(2) and so on, saving the previous results to avoid re-computation (dynamic programming).
bw- Posts : 2922
Join date : 2012-11-15
Re: an interesting probability problem
elegant! loved it. i got an ever so slightly different answer (a wee bit smaller) by using brute force counting, but it's possible i missed a few possibilities.bw wrote:my son's solution:
450295/1679616 or 0.26809401672
the solution is based on writing a recurrence relation for p(n) where p(n) is the probability that one of the running totals is exactly n assuming we toss the die an infinite number of times.
for the basis case, p(0) is 1 (because the running total right at the beginning is always 0), and p(i) is 0 if 'i' is negative (because the running total can never be negative).
the recurrence relation for p(n) is (1/6)(p(n-1)+p(n-2)+...+p(n-6))
we can solve the recurrence relation in linear time by first computing p(1), then p(2) and so on, saving the previous results to avoid re-computation (dynamic programming).
MaxEntropy_Man- Posts : 14702
Join date : 2011-04-28
Re: an interesting probability problem
>> I looked at the Purdue math website. I finally found one problem even I could solveMaxEntropy_Man wrote:this is from the purdue problem of the week series. i submitted a numerical answer to them yesterday. will post my answer here tomorrow and the official answer when they post it.Rishi wrote:>>> I kinda fixed the counts. Are we supposed to come up with an expression involving K?
1,1,1,1,1,1,1,1 (1 way)
1,1,1,1,1,1,2 (7 ways)
1,1,1,1,1,3 (6 ways)
1,1,1,1,4 (5 ways)
1,1,1,5 (4 ways)
1,1,6 (3 ways)
1,2,5 (3 ways)
1,3,4 (3 ways)
2, 6 (2 ways)
3, 5 (2 ways)
4, 4 (1 way)
If K=8, the total number of ways Tk=8 is 1. The probability of getting Tk=8 for K=8 is 1/(6**.
If K=7, the total number of ways Tk=8 is 7. The probability of getting Tk=8 for K=7 is 7/(6**7).
If K=6, the total number of ways Tk=8 is 6. The probability of getting Tk=6 for K=6 is 6/(6**6).
If K=5, the total number of ways Tk=8 is 5. The probability of getting Tk=8 for K=5 is 5/(6**5).
If K=4, the total number of ways Tk=8 is 4. The probability of getting Tk=8 for K=4 is 4/(6**4).
If K=3, the total number of ways Tk=8 is 9. The probability of getting Tk=8 for K=3 is 9/(6**3).
If K=2, the total number of ways Tk=8 is 5. The probability of getting Tk=8 for K=2 is 5/(6**2).
So you add up these individual probabilities to get the final answer.
Problem No. 1 (Fall 2000 Series)
Rishi- Posts : 5129
Join date : 2011-09-02
Re: an interesting probability problem
Yep. That was the solution they posted:bw wrote:my son's solution:
450295/1679616 or 0.26809401672
the solution is based on writing a recurrence relation for p(n) where p(n) is the probability that one of the running totals is exactly n assuming we toss the die an infinite number of times.
for the basis case, p(0) is 1 (because the running total right at the beginning is always 0), and p(i) is 0 if 'i' is negative (because the running total can never be negative).
the recurrence relation for p(n) is (1/6)(p(n-1)+p(n-2)+...+p(n-6))
we can solve the recurrence relation in linear time by first computing p(1), then p(2) and so on, saving the previous results to avoid re-computation (dynamic programming).
http://www.math.purdue.edu/pow/fall2013/pdf/solution5.pdf
A few others submitted the brute force solution in the link above which is listed as the second solution.
Hellsangel- Posts : 14721
Join date : 2011-04-28
Re: an interesting probability problem
Max,
As you said, my approach was correct but I left out some other possibilities of counting. Like 2 2 4 etc.
As you said, my approach was correct but I left out some other possibilities of counting. Like 2 2 4 etc.
Rishi- Posts : 5129
Join date : 2011-09-02
Re: an interesting probability problem
yes but you also have to properly count the number of distinct permutations for each k, i.e. 2,6 is different from 6,2 and so on. i got the answer but hate my own method. bw's kid's solution which is the same as the other solution on the purdue site is far more elegant.Rishi wrote:Max,
As you said, my approach was correct but I left out some other possibilities of counting. Like 2 2 4 etc.
i have an engineer's mindset unfortunately. break it down by whatever tool is available. not a lot of finesse.
MaxEntropy_Man- Posts : 14702
Join date : 2011-04-28
Re: an interesting probability problem
and i think you were aiming to do that, but had some mistakes. for example the number of distinct permutations of 1,3,4 is 3! (=6) and not 3 as you had computed.MaxEntropy_Man wrote:yes but you also have to properly count the number of distinct permutations for each k, i.e. 2,6 is different from 6,2 and so on. i got the answer but hate my own method. bw's kid's solution which is the same as the other solution on the purdue site is far more elegant.Rishi wrote:Max,
As you said, my approach was correct but I left out some other possibilities of counting. Like 2 2 4 etc.
i have an engineer's mindset unfortunately. break it down by whatever tool is available. not a lot of finesse.
MaxEntropy_Man- Posts : 14702
Join date : 2011-04-28
Re: an interesting probability problem
>>> From the two different ways to solve the problem, what really matters is p(k=2) thru p(k=. Then why was it mentioned that the dice is being rolled forever? Is it to trick the student or to find out whether the student disregards the irrelevant information?MaxEntropy_Man wrote:and i think you were aiming to do that, but had some mistakes. for example the number of distinct permutations of 1,3,4 is 3! (=6) and not 3 as you had computed.MaxEntropy_Man wrote:yes but you also have to properly count the number of distinct permutations for each k, i.e. 2,6 is different from 6,2 and so on. i got the answer but hate my own method. bw's kid's solution which is the same as the other solution on the purdue site is far more elegant.Rishi wrote:Max,
As you said, my approach was correct but I left out some other possibilities of counting. Like 2 2 4 etc.
i have an engineer's mindset unfortunately. break it down by whatever tool is available. not a lot of finesse.
Rishi- Posts : 5129
Join date : 2011-09-02
Re: an interesting probability problem
i don't think it was a trick. i think it was stated like that to make the students think of the more general case and arrive at the recurrence relation solution.Rishi wrote:>>> From the two different ways to solve the problem, what really matters is p(k=2) thru p(k=. Then why was it mentioned that the dice is being rolled forever? Is it to trick the student or to find out whether the student disregards the irrelevant information?MaxEntropy_Man wrote:and i think you were aiming to do that, but had some mistakes. for example the number of distinct permutations of 1,3,4 is 3! (=6) and not 3 as you had computed.MaxEntropy_Man wrote:yes but you also have to properly count the number of distinct permutations for each k, i.e. 2,6 is different from 6,2 and so on. i got the answer but hate my own method. bw's kid's solution which is the same as the other solution on the purdue site is far more elegant.Rishi wrote:Max,
As you said, my approach was correct but I left out some other possibilities of counting. Like 2 2 4 etc.
i have an engineer's mindset unfortunately. break it down by whatever tool is available. not a lot of finesse.
rishi -- there are many problems on the site that are solvable and do break with a little effort. i am collecting these for when my kid is ready for her calc course.
here is one i recently spent a bit of time on and was able to break. it's not too difficult. try it. it's an old problem and the solution is already there, but don't look at the solution:
http://www.math.purdue.edu/pow/spring2003/pdf/solution06.pdf
MaxEntropy_Man- Posts : 14702
Join date : 2011-04-28
Re: an interesting probability problem
the advantage of the recurrence relation solution is that you can calculate the probability for any 'n' in about 4 lines of code.
bw- Posts : 2922
Join date : 2012-11-15
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