To Rashmun: Did Auranzeb kill shias enmasse?

by MulaiAzhagi Sat Jul 07, 2012 4:00 pm

Mughal emperor Aurangzeb ruled the same society that once was governed by his predecessor Akbar. Shias were killed en masse during Aurangzeb’s era while Akbar’s rule was peaceful for them.

http://blogs.tribune.com.pk/story/10477/shia-killing-identified-offloaded-and-shot/

by Idéfix Sat Jul 07, 2012 4:03 pm

If he did kill Muslims as you suggest, that is new proof of him being secular.

by Marathadi-Saamiyaar Sat Jul 07, 2012 4:33 pm

panini press wrote:If he did kill Muslims as you suggest, that is new proof of him being secular.

Not so short. lemme imagine myself as the Maulana Islami:

" Aurangazeb - although he is no Akbar - was a devout muslim and never would have killed another muslim. he did not even kill Shah Jehan and that should be proof enough of his religious fairness. Suppose, if we assume Aurangazeb did kill muslims, for arugument sake, there should have been demolition of mosques, and killing of hindus as well to prove his secularism. But, we know that Aurangazeb was pro hindu and built several temples, and patronized hindu brahmins. Therefore, Aurangazeb could not have killed any muslims. If he had killed any hindus, it was only bcz of his loyalty to iSlam, which in no way contradicts his secularism. Also, if Aurangazeb was not secular, then Shah Jehan and Akbar also could not have been secular. The world world knows they were secular and so was Aurangazeb."

Only those whose uncle was a cheating priest would talk ill of Moguls.

by Guest Sun Jul 08, 2012 11:04 am

MulaiAzhagi wrote: Mughal emperor Aurangzeb ruled the same society that once was governed by his predecessor Akbar. Shias were killed en masse during Aurangzeb’s era while Akbar’s rule was peaceful for them.

http://blogs.tribune.com.pk/story/10477/shia-killing-identified-offloaded-and-shot/

--> never heard of this (aurangzeb persecuting shias) before.

by Marathadi-Saamiyaar Sun Jul 08, 2012 11:34 am

Rashmun wrote:
MulaiAzhagi wrote: Mughal emperor Aurangzeb ruled the same society that once was governed by his predecessor Akbar. Shias were killed en masse during Aurangzeb’s era while Akbar’s rule was peaceful for them.

http://blogs.tribune.com.pk/story/10477/shia-killing-identified-offloaded-and-shot/

--> never heard of this (aurangzeb persecuting shias) before.

Agree.... then all the reports and articles must be lies.

If you have not heard something, then it must not exist.

by MulaiAzhagi Sun Jul 08, 2012 4:19 pm

http://wiki.answers.com/Q/Why_did_Aurangzeb_hate_Shia_Muslims

The Omayyads and the Abbasids killed not only the Shia Imams (who were direct progeny of prophet Muhammad) but also carried out mass executions of Shia Muslims. In the Indian sub-continent, during the era of the Moghul king Aurangzeb Aalamgir, mass murder of Shia Muslims took place upon his orders. And the Ottoman Empire was also no exception when it comes to the Shia persecution. The point I am trying to make here is that none of these rulers were ''foreign agents'' or working on any agenda given to them by any foreign power. They themselves were quite powerful rulers and their eras are often referred to as the glorious eras of Islamic history. However, these so-called glorious eras are tainted with the Shia blood. These are recorded historical facts that cannot be denied.

http://nakvisson.blogspot.com/2012/06/capitalising-on-anti-shia-ideology.html

The Shi’as suffered most under the rule of Aurangzeb, who considered them as heretics on par with the Hindus and other non-believers.[6] Subsequently this brought an enforcement of Sunni law and suppression of all Shi'a practices, whether religious or cultural.

http://www.theshiapedia.com/index.php?title=Persecution_of_Shia_Muslims

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